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Going into the second volume of his history of sexuality, Michel Foucault returns from the speculative nature of n The History of Sexuality 1: The Will to Knowledgen to the prober histographics that he was known for earlier. Granted, the sources for how sexuality was viewed in pre-4oo B.C. Greece aren't numerous, but Foucault makes use of what he got in a very effective manner.
The purpose of n The History of Sexuality, Volume 2: The Use of Pleasuren is twofold. First is to demonstrate how the ancient Greeks saw sexuality and second is differentiate this view with the framing of sexuality within the Christian paradigme. And Foucault does manage to do both.
Foucault aptly demonstrate how the Greeks' (or more specifically, Greek men's) view on sexuality was no bound up in the same morality as the later Christians, showing how the Greeks' morality, as it pertained to sex and sexuality, had less to do with the act itself and more to do with how and why the sexual act was performed.
However, I don't think this view of sexual morality is as different from the Christian tradition as Foucault would want us to think. As the subheading of the book would suggest, Foucault's main idea was that pleasure took up a central place in Greek sexual morality, in that pleasures should only be derived and should be enjoyed in moderation. But this same focus on pleasure can be also be found in certain Christian cults and tradition, that either considers pleasure as a necessary part of sexual relations or as a product of the Fall which has to be avoided to live in purity. So, while the framing of pleasure is entirely different, the Greek and Christian traditions do seem to have more in common than Foucault gives them credit for.
There's also an alarming lack of discussion on female sexuality in the book. Granted, I suspect that most writing on sexuality until fairly recently was completely male-focused, but Foucault never writes this. He just only deal with the history of sexuality as it pertain to males. Foucault does recognize that women exist and are dealt with in the litterature of the time, but he never goes any deeper than an acknowledgement. And in a work that set out to this in-depth, that seems strange.
The purpose of n The History of Sexuality, Volume 2: The Use of Pleasuren is twofold. First is to demonstrate how the ancient Greeks saw sexuality and second is differentiate this view with the framing of sexuality within the Christian paradigme. And Foucault does manage to do both.
Foucault aptly demonstrate how the Greeks' (or more specifically, Greek men's) view on sexuality was no bound up in the same morality as the later Christians, showing how the Greeks' morality, as it pertained to sex and sexuality, had less to do with the act itself and more to do with how and why the sexual act was performed.
However, I don't think this view of sexual morality is as different from the Christian tradition as Foucault would want us to think. As the subheading of the book would suggest, Foucault's main idea was that pleasure took up a central place in Greek sexual morality, in that pleasures should only be derived and should be enjoyed in moderation. But this same focus on pleasure can be also be found in certain Christian cults and tradition, that either considers pleasure as a necessary part of sexual relations or as a product of the Fall which has to be avoided to live in purity. So, while the framing of pleasure is entirely different, the Greek and Christian traditions do seem to have more in common than Foucault gives them credit for.
There's also an alarming lack of discussion on female sexuality in the book. Granted, I suspect that most writing on sexuality until fairly recently was completely male-focused, but Foucault never writes this. He just only deal with the history of sexuality as it pertain to males. Foucault does recognize that women exist and are dealt with in the litterature of the time, but he never goes any deeper than an acknowledgement. And in a work that set out to this in-depth, that seems strange.